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Old 15th April 2019, 00:58   #7
clf
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Comfortably Numb View Post
This begs the question I have often pondered when reading some adverts, -Is a trader even allowed to sell a car to a member of the public (not involved in the car trade) without a current MoT? I once bought a 1953 Morris Oxford MO that had stood on the traders forecourt as an eye-catcher for several years. Apart from freeing off the brakes, pumping up the tyres, and buying it a battery and an oil change, it was ready for MoT which it passed first time. It was remarkably rust free, as most of those Rovers appear to be. Most of the muck would come off with a good jetwash.
I would imagine that it is not necessary, however a dealer is obliged to sell the product fit for purpose and therefore would be obligated to provide some form of warranty . The terms on how it was sold, though, would determine the effect of any warranty. Eg' for parts only', stated on any invoice would get them off the hook. But if it was sold as a car, and it failed the mot, a buyer would have some redress within a reasonable mount of time (normally a.minmum of 3 months). Using sold as seen on an invoice apparently doesn't absolve a dealer. A valid mot though is a such a strong selling point for any car dealer so selling without one doesn't make sense to me.

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